please explain compression of bass theory...
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Old 20-02-2014, 04:35 AM   #1
henryspencer
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please explain compression of bass theory...

I don't get why I would want to compress a soft synth bass sound. Lets say I make an 808 sounding sub bass with a strong pitch envelope on the decay. Why would I want to add a compressor exactly?

You can see in this tutorial

at about 5:00. he adds the compressor. Im really curious what the goal is here.

also as a side question: If I saturate or use tape distortion does that basically take care of it?

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Old 20-02-2014, 05:50 AM   #2
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Re: please explain compression of bass theory...

I haven't watched the video but one reason would be that a f2 and an f3 will be different in volume. Compressing will level out the f2 which will be lower in volume than f3.

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Old 20-02-2014, 09:41 AM   #3
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Re: please explain compression of bass theory...

using a compressor will even out the volume of your bassline.

for example > your bassline is using say, keys C1 and A1..

(i dont know the exact freq to note relationship off my head, but).. say C1 is hitting 80hz @ -9db, A1 might be hitting 100hz but peaking @ -12db..

a compressor will even out the level difference between the two and when used with EQ > helps to make space for other sounds in the mix..

as for the tape saturation > you can use that anywhere in the fx/ insert chain.. ie: before or after the compressor.

edit > like RfJ said, but in a roundabout way

hope that helps a bit.

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Old 20-02-2014, 09:12 PM   #4
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Re: please explain compression of bass theory...

You was right in the 1st place.there is zero point to it any volume fluctuations that people hear on say a sine wave as it hits different notes is either because the sinewave goes out of phase when combined with other sounds e.g a synth with free running oscillators or, it's their room

if anything you actually want to be playing round with the volume/velocities/dynamics of each note as flat subs sound absolutely sterile and unexciting on a 3 way system (2 "satellite speakers" and a sub or 3 way driver speakers)

Even knife parties subs are pretty dynamic.can't say the same for the top end though

in relation to sounds with sub harmonics though like a low saw etc it can sometimes aid in flattening their dynamics a bit especially if they fluctuate in phase alot e.g again free running oscillators but i'd swerve it when it comes to subs and other less harmonically complex sounds,retriggered oscillators


Just watched the vid,in relation to what he is using it for it makes zero sense.it's a feckin sub there is no high frequencies to attenuate.if it sounds too high when you stick your other elements over the top then it's the arrangement or the key you are in,compressing and eq'ing subs is complete and utter fail...................




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Old 20-02-2014, 09:25 PM   #5
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Re: please explain compression of bass theory...

You want the lower frequencies to be consistent. Even after compression it's common to put a limiter on it too. I know, slap a limiter on it right? But in this case it works.

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Old 20-02-2014, 09:28 PM   #6
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Re: please explain compression of bass theory...

@[Only registered and activated users can see links. Click here to register]
; Perhaps I'm misreading your post but are you saying there's no difference in amplititude between a c3 sine and a c1 sine, and any difference heard is merely the result of the room or phase cancelation?

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Old 20-02-2014, 09:30 PM   #7
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Re: please explain compression of bass theory...

Maybe he just want some transient/click (and keep the "body" of the bass in control). That's why he adds some attack time

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Old 20-02-2014, 09:35 PM   #8
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Re: please explain compression of bass theory...

Quote:
Originally Posted by RFJ View Post
@[Only registered and activated users can see links. Click here to register]
; Perhaps I'm misreading your post but are you saying there's no difference in amplititude between a c3 sine and a c1 sine, and any difference heard is merely the result of the room or phase cancelation?
If you mean in actual amplitude then no there is no difference between a c1 and c3 but i think what you are referring to is how we perceive the volume difference between c1 and c3. in terms of peaks they both have the same volume but yes we do perceive one of them as louder.regardless, compressing subs to "even out their volume..."horses for courses i suppose.i do change the velocities but i've never found a need to compress a sub in or other non-rich harmonic sound

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